“11. Fumigation Charters have the liberty to fumigate the cargo on board at loading and discharge port(s) or places en route at their risk and expense. Charterers are responsible for ensuring that Officers and Crew as well as all other persons on board the Vessel during and after the fumigation are not exposed to any health hazards whatsoever. Charterers undertake to pay Owners all necessary expenses incurred because of the fumigation and time lost thereby shall count as laytime or time on demurrage. When fumigation has been effective at loading port and has been certified by proper survey or by a competent authority, Bills of Lading shall not be claused by Master for reason of Insects having been detected in a cargo prior to such fumigation …”
“The Ventilation Issue 68. We consider this issue in the context of the Claimant’s demurrage claim at Brake, namely whether laytime or demurrage was interrupted by the Claimant’s breach or fault. Our analysis and findings also go to the Claimant’s claims for indemnity and damages and the Respondent’s Counterclaim (Sections C and E below) … 70. Both Parties said that the other should bear liability for the delay. The Vessel was ordered to leave the berth because when her hatches were opened in anticipation of discharge, the phosphine levels in the Cargo were way above the safety limit acceptable to the local authorities for stevedore discharge. The Respondent said that the Claimant had failed to ventilate the Vessel properly before she berthed and that that failure had continued through June and July, so that demurrage was interrupted by causes for which the Claimant was contractually responsible. The Claimant said that it had ventilated properly and that it was for the Respondent to prove an exception to the running of the demurrage which had commenced by the time the Vessel had arrived at Brake; but that to the extent that it needed to show a cause, the high levels of phosphine were caused directly by the fumigation that had taken place at Constanta, and the Respondent was liable either in breach or by way of an indemnity for the consequences … Ventilation and PPM Levels: A Summary 149. The gas emission levels of the Cargo in all four holds continued to be far higher (albeit not uniformly so) not only than was acceptable for discharge in Brake but also far higher than anyone expected - the Parties, the fumigators, and with hindsight, the Parties’ experts. We conclude that there was no decisive or actionable failure by the crew to ventilate the Cargo at the relevant periods during the approach to Brake, or at the berth in May, or during the period afterwards at anchorage. The ppm levels must therefore have remained as high as they did for another reason. 150. On this view the Respondent has not established that the Claimant was at fault within the terms of the Charter provisions such as to interrupt the running of demurrage at Brake. We are also satisfied that the Claimant has done enough to establish that it was not negligent. Possible Alternative Causes 151. The Parties spent a great deal of time examining alternative possible causes, not least because the Claimant would need to prove breach by the Respondent in order to succeed in its claim for damages. Various theories were considered, which ultimately required us to address the same question, namely whether the fumigators had been negligent. 152. The first, put forward by Dr Sheard, was the “cold cargo” theory. A second and third, also put forward by the Claimant, were that the fumigators had used too much fumigant or could have adopted alternative methods of fumigation. In Closing submissions the Claimant submitted to us that it considered the “cold cargo” theory to be the most likely explanation but stated that, if we preferred a different explanation, that worked just as well since, absent the hatches never having been opened (which no long formed part of the Respondent’s case), “it [was] difficult to see how the problems at Brake can be explained without reference in some way to the job done by the fumigation contractor”. 153. The second theory was swiftly dismantled by Mr Rice and ultimately conceded by the Claimant, and we say no more about it here. The first occupied more time. We referred to it earlier. Dr Sheard suggested that because the Cargo had been stored in Ukraine throughout the local winter before it was transported to the Vessel and loaded, it was cold – so cold that after it was loaded and fumigated, the fumigation tablets continued to emit gas for far longer than expected. 154. Mr Rice took issue with that theory and so do we. There was no evidence that the Cargo was abnormally cold on loading or what its temperature was. Neither the quality surveyors nor the fumigators at Constanta commented that the Cargo was unduly cold. Neither the Master nor the Chief Officer reported anything about the Cargo being cold at the time of loading. Neither did the surveyors who attended at the anchorage at Brake. As Mr Rice pointed out, one of those surveyors was a fumigator. He would have noticed and understood the implications of an abnormally cold grain cargo. Mr Rice spoke to them and they told him that they remembered nothing of significance about this. The Claimant criticised Mr Rice for offering hearsay evidence and for stepping outside his remit, but we accepted what he reported and we found it helpful. 155. Speculation as to whether alternative means of fumigation might have been more appropriate were no more than that … Thus, at the end of the day, we are left without a certain and unassailable answer as to why the phosphine gas in the fumigant did not disperse more quickly than it did. But for the reasons above we have concluded that there was no actionable fault by the Claimant regarding ventilation or cargo care. Nor do we consider any negligence by the fumigators to have been established, so as to amount an actionable breach by the Respondent. Testing and Co-operation … 162. In conclusion on this part of our award, therefore, we find that despite an admirable presentation of its case, the Respondent has not established that the Claimant was in actionable breach of the Charter such as to stop or interrupt the running of laytime and demurrage … Demurrage at Brake - Determination 166. For the reasons set out above, we accordingly find that the Claimant is entitled to demurrage at the discharge port of Brake in the reduced amount of USD 840,017.19. … C. Implied Indemnity / Damages for Delay 168. In Claim submissions, under the heading “Damages Claim”, the Claimant claimed an indemnity for time lost / all delays incurred as a result of the ventilation issue, alternatively damages for a breach by the Respondent of its obligations to carry out fumigation with reasonable skill and case [sic] and/or in accordance with Clause 11 of the Charter. Under this head, the Claimant claimed damages for its loss of earnings under its intended follow-on charter for the period 19 May to18 July 2022 in the amount of USD 1,080,000 and loss of earnings at the market rate from 19 July until 30 July in the amount of USD 214,500, a total of USD 1,294,500, with credit to be given for any sums awarded by way of demurrage. By Closing submissions, the Claimant framed this claim as a claim for an indemnity in circumstances where the Respondent undertook to pay all the necessary expenses incurred because of the fumigation, alternatively the fumigation had been undertaken in breach of Clause 11. 169. At this stage, it became apparent that a threshold legal question arose in relation to the damages claim, namely whether the legal remedy of liquidated damages for the delay, in the form of demurrage, liquidated all the Claimant’s claims or only the demurrage claim. We accordingly address this threshold question first, before considering the indemnity / damages claim itself. 170. Relying upon Inverkip Steamship Co Ltd v Bunge & Co[1917] 2 KB 193 and The Eternal Bliss [2020] 2 Ll. Rep 419, it was the Respondent’s case that this further claim was a claim for damages suffered by reason of the detention of the Vessel, in respect of which the Parties had agreed that damages were to governed by the demurrage provisions of the Charter. 171. The Respondent referred us particularly to paragraph 38 of the latter judgment which in turn referred to the former judgment as being authority for the proposition: “if the [owner’s] claim was in substance, though not in form, a claim for detention of the vessel, the special damage here claimed for would not be recoverable. Demurrage on any view liquidates the damages, and therefore is the owner’s only remedy, “for detention of the vessel” beyond the laytime; and that is so even if that detention results from (or also from) some breach of contract other than the failure to load or discharge (as the case may be) at the required rate”. 172. In response, the Claimant relied on paragraph 52 of the Court of Appeal’s judgment in The Eternal Bliss to submit that the Respondent was wrong to say that its further claim was liquidated by demurrage as it was relying on the separate and distinct breach referred to above. 173. In a final submission on this legal point, the Respondent maintained its position on the basis that The Eternal Bliss was not authority for the proposition that where there are two separate breaches, damages for detention are not liquidated by demurrage. Rather, the question in that case had been whether a party could recover damages for detention and damages for cargo damage where there had been a single breach (of failing to discharge within the laydays). 174. The Respondent put it to us, and we accept, that it was common ground that where damages other than for detention were caused by a separate breach, damages in addition to demurrage could be recovered. Similarly, if the only damages claimed were for detention, as was the case here, damages in addition to demurrage could not be recovered. This latter proposition had been established in Inverkip and had not been overturned by The EternalBliss …”
“175. On the basis of the above, following the authorities to which we have been referred, the question for us to determine is whether the Claimant’s further claim for an indemnity / damages is a claim loss arising out of the detention of the Vessel. We consider that it is. 176. In our view, a failure to fumigate properly, even if proven (which we do not find to have been the case for the reasons set out above - there is insufficient evidence before us to make any findings in relation to the fumigation undertaken at Constanta), could not itself cause the follow-on Charter to be lost. Rather, it would have caused the detention of the Vessel, for which the Claimant has contractually agreed to be compensated by contractual demurrage. 177. In accordance with the above, we find that the Claimant’s further claim is a claim for an indemnity or damages for detention to the Vessel, that such claim has been liquidated by the demurrage already awarded and that this further claim fails accordingly.”
“Whilst Owners maintain that the Tribunal's Award is correct and are prepared to defend the Appeal … we consider that one possible / likely outcome of the Appeal is that the dispute will have to be remitted back to the Tribunal in any event. This is because: … 2. If the Court or Tribunal was to determine that Owners’ claim for demurrage has not succeeded, then it will be necessary for the Tribunal to determine Owners’ alternative claim for an indemnity for the waiting time under Clause 11. That is because in their Award the Tribunal decided that it was not necessary for them to decide the alternative claim under Clause 11 given Owners’ demurrage claim had succeeded, but if the demurrage claim does not succeed then it will be necessary for the Tribunal to determine that issue in any event. Given the above, we write to propose that the parties avoid the cost of the appeal and agree by consent that the issue of waiver should go back to the Tribunal to make further findings of fact, as well as determining the alternative Clause 11 claim if necessary…”
“… As to the proposal made in that message, with respect, we do not consider it likely that the court would remit the award to the tribunal on either of the bases suggested by you. Even if the matter were to go back to the tribunal, we do not think it would be helpful for it to do so without a decision of the court making it clear that the tribunal’s understanding of The Happy Day was incorrect …”
“As such, we reiterate Owners’ proposal of3 December 2025 that the parties avoid the unnecessary cost of the appeal and agree by consent that the issue of waiver should go back to the Tribunal to make further findings of fact, as well as determining the alternative Clause 11 claim if necessary. Should you reject our proposal, we reserve the right to refer to this email on the question of costs in due course.”
“On an appeal under this section the court may by order— (a) confirm the award, (b) vary the award, (c) remit the award to the tribunal, in whole or in part, for reconsideration in the light of the court’s determination, or (d) set aside the award in whole or in part. The court shall not exercise its power to set aside an award, in whole or in part, unless it is satisfied that it would be inappropriate to remit the matters in question to the tribunal for reconsideration.”
“Section 69(7) of the Act forms part of the statutory code providing for appeals on questions of law and as such it sets out the remedies available to the court following the hearing of an appeal. No doubt the court has a measure of discretion when it comes to deciding what order is most appropriate to give effect to its decision. For example, following a successful appeal the court might decide to vary the award itself or remit it to the tribunal for reconsideration. However, section 69(7) must be read in the context of section 69 as a whole. The intention of the legislation is that the powers of the court under this subsection should be exercised in a manner that will best give effect to its conclusions on the issues of law that arise on the appeal, including any issues of law raised by the defendant under paragraph 6.12.(3) [nowCPR PD62 , para. 12.6(2)] of the practice direction seeking to uphold the award. It does not, in my view, give the court a wider discretion or allow it to take into account matters outside the scope of the appeal itself. Thus if the court’s decision on questions of law means that the award cannot be upheld, I do not think that it has a discretion under this subsection to affirm the award on extraneous grounds such as an irregularity in the conduct of the proceedings. Any complaint of irregularity must therefore be pursued by some other route.”
“12.6 A respondent who wishes to oppose an application for permission to appeal must file a respondent’s notice which - (1) sets out the grounds (but not the argument) on which the respondent opposes the application; and (2) states whether the respondent wishes to contend that the award should be upheld for reasons not expressed (or not fully expressed) in the award and, if so, states those reasons (but not the argument). 12.7 The respondent’s notice must be filed and served within 21 days after the date on which the respondent was required to acknowledge service and must be accompanied by a skeleton argument in support which complies with paragraph 12.2 above.”
“I accept that the position here is slightly different to the extent that Mr Moriarty QC is not suggesting that he would wish the matter to be remitted in order to put before the tribunal any fresh evidence or to advance new contentions before the tribunal. However, it does not seem to me that such difference is significant. Moreover, in my judgment, the approach urged by Mr Moriarty QC is not consistent with the scheme of the 1996 Act and the CPR in relation to arbitration appeals. In truth, the main thrust of Mr Moriarty QC’s submission is that the award should be remitted because the conclusion reached by the tribunal is (or at least may be) justified for reasons not set out in the award. However, a party who wishes to contend that an award should be upheld for reasons not expressed (or not fully expressed) in such award is required to file a respondent’s notice at the stage of the application for permission to appeal in accordance withCPR PD 62 Para 12.6. In my view, it would be wrong in principle and certainly “inappropriate” now to order remission on the basis of entirely speculative matters in respect of which the court has no material before it and which, if such matters were to be relied upon to seek to uphold the award, should have been included in a respondent’s notice served in accordance with the rules and within the appropriate time limits in opposition to the original application for leave to appeal …”
“45. As described above, the Charterers sought, in addition to supporting the tribunal’s analysis, to uphold the Award on a number of grounds which were not relied upon by the arbitrators. Before considering the parties’ arguments in more detail, it is appropriate briefly to describe the framework for the court’s decision on a section 69 application, in particular where a party seeks to uphold an award on different grounds. 46. Where leave to appeal has been given, the essential question is whether the tribunal has made an error of law, and if so what if any consequence flows from that error. Primarily, this involves consideration of the argument on the issue of law in relation to which leave to appeal has been given. 47. A respondent to an application under section 69 of the 1996 Act may, however, serve a respondent’s notice: para 12.6(2) ofCPR PD 62 . There is no leave requirement. This part ofPD 62 is headed “Applications for permission to appeal” … 48. There is a degree of conflict in the authorities as to whether the requirement for a respondent’s notice applies only at the leave stage. In Cottonex Anstalt v Patriot Spinning Mills Ltd[2014] 1 Lloyd's Rep 615 , Hamblen J considered (at paras 41-42) that notice to uphold for different reasons had to be given by the respondent at the permission stage, and that permission to rely upon such grounds should only rarely be given if raised subsequently. In Ramburs Inc v Agrifert SA [2016] Bus LR 135, para 10, Andrew Smith J took a different view, pointing out that a respondent did not have to oppose the application for leave to appeal - in which event there would be no opportunity to submit a respondent's notice. 49. It seems to me that the position is not wholly clear on the terms of para 12.6. I favour the view taken by Hamblen J: where - as is invariably the case on applications for permission to appeal under section 69 - a respondent has in fact opposed the application for permission, then it is indeed necessary for any reasons for upholding the award on different grounds to be set out in a respondent's notice. It is possible for those reasons to be supplemented, but (unless consented to) the court’s permission to make an amendment to the respondent’s notice is required. This approach is consistent with the overriding objective, and will enable the appellant to know, in advance of the appeal, the case that the respondent will advance in relation to upholding the award for reasons not expressed or not fully expressed in the award. The alternative approach results in a respondent being wholly unconstrained by any need to give notice to the appellant, with the consequence that new arguments can be raised at the hearing itself or indeed (as has happened to some extent in the present case) subsequent to the hearing. 50. However, irrespective of that issue, it is clear that a respondent is just as constrained as an appellant by the parameters of section 69. Any point argued pursuant to a respondent's notice must be one of law. It is no more open to a respondent than an appellant to go behind or beyond the tribunal's findings of fact …”
“82. This, therefore, contemplates a respondent to an arbitration appeal resisting an appellant’s appeal either on the basis of the grounds contained in the award under appeal or on the basis of grounds not set out in the award upon which it invites the court to uphold the award. The provision does not provide a mechanism for the court to vary, remit or set aside the award. If a party wishes to seek any of those remedies, it must itself apply pursuant to sections 67, 68 or 69 of the 1996 Act - in the case of section 69, seeking permission in relation to a point of law that the arbitral tribunal was asked to determine. 83. It follows that, whilst DGO could rely on the provision to raise grounds not expressed in the award in order to invite the court to dismiss Mitsui’s application, it cannot do so in order to invite the court to remit a distinct issue to the Board of Appeal. The latter, however, is what DGO is now seeking to do. For this reason alone, it would be inappropriate to give DGO leave to re-amend. 84. Secondly, as Mr Kenny KC acknowledges, if a respondent wishes to contend that an award should be upheld on different grounds by the court, it must raise it at the permission stage in a respondent’s notice, and late amendments will only rarely be granted. As Hamblen J put it in Cottonex Anstalt v Patriot Spinning Mills Ltd[2014] 1 Lloyd's Rep 615 at paras 41 to 42: “41. If a respondent wishes to contend that the award should be upheld on other grounds, it should do so at the permission to appeal stage, as required byPD 62 para 12.6. It is important that this is done so as to ensure that decisions on permission to appeal are made on an informed basis: Acada Chemicals Ltd v Empresa Nacional Pesquera SA[1994] 1 Lloyd's Rep 428 at page 432. Whilst the court does have jurisdiction to permit grounds to be raised later, ‘appropriate cases are likely to be rare’ (per HHJ Havelock-Allan in P T Putrabali Adyamulia v Société est Epices (The Intan 6)[2003] 2 Lloyd's Rep 700 at page 709 col 1) …” 85. Although in Ramburs Inc v Agrifert SA [2016] Bus LR 135, at para 10, Andrew Smith J pointed out that a respondent did not have to oppose the application for leave to appeal (in which event there would be no opportunity to submit a respondent's notice), in MUR Shipping BV v RTI Ltd[2022] 2 Lloyd's Rep 297 , at para 49, Jacobs J agreed with what Hamblen J had to say … There is, in short, no scope in the present case to apply a less stringent test to that identified by Hamblen J in the Cottonex case. 87. Thirdly, whilst the authorities (including the Cottonex case at paras 24 to 35) are clear that a respondent can rely on a point of pure law not argued before the arbitral tribunal in providing grounds for resisting an appellant’s appeal, it cannot be the case that a respondent can raise a point of law which was not determined by the arbitral tribunal in support of its own application for distinct relief over and above the dismissal of the (appellant’s) appeal.CPR PD 62 para 12.6, in short, is concerned with resisting an appeal rather than with the seeking of relief which a respondent itself wishes to obtain - in this case remission in order to address a new case based on clause 29 which DGO has not previously sought to advance.” “41. If a respondent wishes to contend that the award should be upheld on other grounds, it should do so at the permission to appeal stage, as required byPD 62 para 12.6. It is important that this is done so as to ensure that decisions on permission to appeal are made on an informed basis: Acada Chemicals Ltd v Empresa Nacional Pesquera SA[1994] 1 Lloyd's Rep 428 at page 432. Whilst the court does have jurisdiction to permit grounds to be raised later, ‘appropriate cases are likely to be rare’ (per HHJ Havelock-Allan in P T Putrabali Adyamulia v Société est Epices (The Intan 6)[2003] 2 Lloyd's Rep 700 at page 709 col 1) …”
“21. An objection that an argument is not available to a respondent on the final hearing of a section 69 appeal may be an objection that due to the nature of such an appeal, and recognising the primacy of the arbitral process, the argument is one that the court cannot or should not entertain. That is what I mean when referring to the admissibility of an argument on a section 69 appeal. 22. An argument that is inadmissible in that sense cannot affect the outcome of the section 69 appeal for what is, in context, a substantive reason, concerning the proper ambit of intervention by the court under the 1996 Act. Thus for instance, several authorities hold that under section 69 it is no more open to a respondent than it is to an appellant to go behind or beyond the arbitrators’ findings of fact, at all events if, in the case of going beyond those findings, the respondent would be seeking findings it did not seek from the arbitrators: see, for example, CTI Group Inc v Transclear SA (No 2) (The Mary Nour) [2008] 1 All ER (Comm) 203; Cottonex Anstalt v Patriot Spinning Mills Ltd[2014] 1 Lloyd's Rep 615 ; MUR Shipping BV v RTI Ltd [2022] Bus LR 473 (on appeal, not touching this point, MUR Shipping BV v RTI Ltd [2023] Bus LR 355, MUR Shipping BV v RTI Ltd[2025] AC 675 ). 23. On the other hand, an objection to a respondent’s argument may be that it should not be allowed to rely on it for the procedural reason that the respondent failed to comply with an obligation relating to it that arose under the CPR or a Practice Direction (or an order giving directions in the particular case). That was the additional point taken against the seller’s second alternative case. 24. The premise for the objection was that notice of an intention to pursue the second alternative case should have been given underCPR PD 62 , para 12.6(2) … 25. The seller’s second alternative case, as clarified by Mr Debattista in oral argument, did not contend that the awards should be upheld for reasons other than those given by the Board of Appeal. Rather, it contended that if the appeals were well founded, meaning that the Board was wrong in law to uphold the seller’s claims under section 49(2), the relief granted under section 69(7) should be or should include remission to the Board for it to consider in each case whether to uphold instead a different claim. So, ifCPR PD 62 , para 12.6 applied here at all, I would say that sub-paragraph (2) did not require that second alternative case to be stated in the respondent’s notice. 26. However, on its terms,CPR PD 62 , para 12.6 did not apply anyway. The seller did not oppose the leave to appeal application. On the plain language of the Practice Direction, it therefore came under no obligation to file a respondent’s notice. It might perhaps have been required to do so as a condition of granting it permission to participate, having acknowledged service so far out of time, but in fact unqualified permission was granted. 27. Foxton et al, Mustill & Boyd: Commercial and Investor State Arbitration, 3rd ed (2024), para 14.167, cite MRI Trading AG v Erdenet Mining Corpn LLC[2012] 2 Lloyd's Rep 465 at para 39, for a proposition that, “If a party contends that an award should be upheld for reasons not set out in the award, [it] is required to file a respondent’s notice at the stage of the application for [leave] to appeal”
“A8. … Where the respondent opposes the leave to appeal application, so that paragraph 12.6 then applies and requires (as I read it) disclosure of any desire to contend on the appeal, if leave be granted, that the award should be upheld for reasons not given by the arbitrators, then the appellant will naturally assume, and the respondent should reasonably expect, that no contention of that kind not disclosed by the respondent’s notice will be advanced, absent agreement or permission. Here, though,CPR PD 62 , para 12.6, on its own terms, did not apply, with the result that no respondent's notice was required. A9. In MRI Trading, Eder J indeed stated in unqualified terms, at para 39, that “a party who wishes to contend that an award should be upheld for reasons not expressed (or not fully expressed) in such award is required to file a respondent’s notice at the stage of the application for permission to appeal in accordance withCPR PD 62 , para 12.6”