“23. … [W]here there is a significant change in the entity’s rights to benefits and exposure to risks … the description or monetary amount relating to an asset should, where necessary, be changed and a liability recognised for any obligations to transfer benefits that are assumed. These cases arise where the transaction takes one or more of the following forms: (a) a transfer of only part of the item in question; …” “25. In applying paragraphs 21-23 above … ‘significant’ should be judged in relation to those benefits and risks that are likely to occur in practice, and not in relation to the total possible benefits and risks.” “71. Transfer of part of an item that generates benefits may occur in one of two ways. The most straightforward is where a proportionate share of the item is transferred. For example, a loan transfer might transfer a proportionate share of a loan (including rights to receive both interest and principal), such that all future cash flows, profits and losses arising on the loan are shared by the transferee and transferor in fixed proportions. A second, less straightforward way of transferring a part of an item arises where the item comprises rights to two or more separate benefit streams, each with its own risks. A part of the item will be transferred where all significant rights to one or more of those benefit streams and associated exposure to risks are transferred whilst all significant rights to the other(s) are retained. An example would be a ‘strip’ of an interest-bearing loan into rights to two or more different cash flow streams that are payable on different dates (for instance ‘interest’ and ‘principal’), with the entity retaining rights to only one of those streams (for instance ‘principal’). In both these cases, the entity would cease to recognise the part of the original asset that has been transferred by the transaction, but would continue to recognise the remainder. A change in the description of the asset might also be required.”
“3.9 Mr Chandler’s opinion is that it is clear that the correct application of FRS 5 is that the interest strip should be derecognised. This treatment is explicitly stated in FRS 5(71). Three of Big Four accountancy firm’s published guidance in this area are also of the same view (the fourth not having any published guidance in this area, to his knowledge).” “3.11 Mr Chandler’s opinion is that it is entirely in accordance with the substance of the transaction to derecognise the interest strip in Plc, since as a matter of fact, the interest strip was transferred. The cash flows in respect of the interest strip were transferred to GKA and GKA received all of the cash in respect of the interest strip.” “3.33 Mr Parish states that de-recognition of the interest strip is “not required under GAAP as there has not been the disposal of an asset that is required to be accounted for separately”
“Q. … [W]hat do you think is the change here, the change in the nature of the assets that are held by PLC? A. I think what has effectively happened – if we can just disregard the preference shares for a moment, I’m not seeking to disregard them from my view, you’ve got a transfer of an asset by a parent to its subsidiary, so legally the interest strip and all the cash flows relating to it go to GKA, not PLC. So PLC does not have control over the benefits of the interest strip because it’s GKA’s asset in GKA’s accounts. So in order to have an asset in your accounts you need to have control over economic benefits and I think where factually GKA has the interest strip asset in its accounts. So that means GKA has control over the economic benefits in relation to interest strip. So I don’t believe that two parties can have control over the interest strip. I believe that PLC has control over its subsidiary, BOSG, which then controls GKA but then I believe the control in respect of the benefits and risks of the interest strip lie with GKA and that is why the interest strip asset is in the GKA accounts. … A. It has disposed of the interest strip effectively. I’m not being pedantic over the terminology but when you look at loans you can describe something as interest-free or interest-bearing but from an accounting perspective it’s the relative cashflows the matter. So if you had for instance a 280 loan principal, and you were to received 300 at the end of the loan term, that might be described as an interest-free loan to some or loan issued at a discount but from an accounting perspective the difference between those two amounts would be interest income. Whereas you are happy to call it an interest-free loan I just see it as the loan principal, the interest had been transferred to somebody else. Q. Let me rephrase the question. Let me put it this way: Beforehand you see PLC as holding the right to the interest cashflow. A. That’s right. Q. After the transaction it no longer holds that right? A. That’s right. Q. And you see that as the change? A. That’s right. Q. And you’re also going to go on and say I assume that you see that as the significant change? A. That’s right.”
“[63] Section 84(1) is the machinery by which all interest under DCC’s loan relationships is brought into account. The section poses a second statutory question, namely whether any particular sum when taken together with the other sums which fall to be brought into account fairly represents all the interest including that which is the mere product of a statutory fiction. That question is different and additional to the first question, whether the sums are in accordance with an accruals basis of accounting. The introduction of that distinct additional question suggests the possibility but, I accept, not the necessity of some process of adjustment. It suggests that there may be some room or adjustment of the sums which would otherwise be given by the application of an authorised accounting method, or, at the very least suggests that in some cases the identification process in s.84(1) will not merely be resolved by an authorised accounting method.”