"By reason of his employment" 40 It seems to me that the words "by reason of" are far wider than the word "therefrom" insection 181 (1) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1970 . They are deliberately designed to close the gap in 11 The House of Lords (Lord Templeman dissenting) reversed the Court of Appeal on other grounds ([1983] 2 AC 214 ), declining to express a view on the issue of “by reason of employment”. 27 taxability which was left by the House of Lords in Hochstrasser v. Mayes [1960] A.C. 376. The words cover cases where the fact of employment is the causa sine qua non of the fringe benefits, that is, where the employee would not have received fringe benefits unless he had been an employee. The fact of employment must be one of the 5 causes of the benefit being provided, but it need not be the sole cause, or even the dominant cause. It is sufficient if the employment was an operative cause - in the sense that it was a condition of the benefit being granted. In this case the fact of the father being employed by ICI was a condition of the student being eligible for an award. There were 10 other conditions also, such as that the student had sufficient educational attainments and had a place at a university. But still, if the father's employment was one of the conditions, that is sufficient. If two students at a university were talking to one another - both of equal attainments in equal need - and the one asked the other "
"For my part, I think that their meaning is adequately conveyed by saying that, while it is not sufficient to render a payment assessable that an employee would not have received it unless he had been an 25 employee, it is assessable if it has been paid to him in return for acting as or being an employee."
'The question is, was the payment an emolument from the employment? In other words, was the employment the source of the 40 emolument?'