"The Claimants seek: 1. Declarations that: a. The purported "
"The defendant may attend the hearing of the claim but may not take part in the hearing unless the court gives permission."
"When the court receives the acknowledgment of service and any written evidence it will give directions as to the future management of the case"
"(1) A defendant who wishes to – (a) dispute the court's jurisdiction to try the claim; or (b) argue that the court should not exercise its jurisdiction may apply to the court for an order declaring that it has no such jurisdiction or should not exercise any jurisdiction which it may have. (2) A defendant who wishes to make such an application must first file an acknowledgment of service in accordance with Part 10. [… ] (4) An application under this rule must – (a) be made within 14 days after filing an acknowledgment of service; [… ]."
"(1) The defendant must – (a) file an acknowledgment of service in the relevant practice form not more than 14 days after service of the claim form; … [ … ]"
"14. The first question which arises is whether the First Defendant can apply for an extension of time of nine days within which to mount the jurisdiction challenge without also seeking an extension of time for entering an acknowledgment of service. Rule 11(2) provides: 'A defendant who wishes to make such an application [to dispute the court's jurisdiction or argue that the court should not exercise its jurisdiction] must first file an acknowledgment of service in accordance with Part 10.' 15. On behalf of the First Defendant, Mr. Harding argued that an acknowledgment of service which complied with the formalities of Part 10 satisfied Rule 11(2), whether or not it had been served timeously. On behalf of the Claimants, Mr. Davies submitted that in order to qualify under Rule 11(2), an acknowledgment of service must comply in all respects with Part 10, and an acknowledgment of service which does not comply with the time provisions set out in Part 10 is not an acknowledgment of service in accordance with Part 10. 16. The Claimants' submissions are to be preferred on this question. The wording of Rule 11(2) is clear. The acknowledgment of service must be "in accordance with Part 10"
"(1) Where the defendant contends that the Part 8 procedure should not be used because – (a) there is a substantial dispute of fact; and (b) the use of the Part 8 procedure is not required or permitted by a rule or practice direction, he must state his reasons when he files his acknowledgment of service. [ … ] (2) When the court receives the acknowledgment of service and any written evidence it will give directions as to the future management of the case."
"(j) decide the order in which issues are to be tried; (k) exclude an issue from consideration; ... "
"20. In the present case Ms Cooke asks me to go further than Mr Males QC went [in Moloobhoy v. Kanani[2012] EWHC 1670 (Comm) ] in two respects. Firstly, she asks me to hear these Part 8 proceedings, as distinct from a summary judgment application, and secondly she asks me to hear these proceedings ahead of any jurisdictional challenge, and not merely at the same time. I am satisfied that I have jurisdiction to do so. Four of the five Defendants have filed acknowledgments of service underCPR r. 8.3 , thereby giving the court jurisdiction to decide these proceedings. One defendant has failed to file an acknowledgment of service, as a result of which she has no right to take part in the hearing: r. 8.4. The acknowledgments all dispute the court's jurisdiction, but the court has power under r. 3.1(2)(j) and (k) to decide the order in which issues are to be tried and to exclude an issue from consideration."
"(2) A claimant may use the Part 8 procedure where – (a) he seeks the court's decision on a question which is unlikely to involve a substantial dispute of fact; or (b) paragraph (6) applies. [ … ] (6) A rule or practice direction may, in relation to a specified type of proceedings – (a) require or permit the use of the Part 8 procedure; and (b) disapply or modify any of the rules set out in this Part as they apply to those proceedings."
"15. Firstly, the Purported Claimants, on their own case, have raised a number of substantial disputes of fact, including (but not limited to) the following: a) The facts and matters that are said to give rise to the interests and standing of [the first defendant] ("
"18. … Deputy Master Marsh made a clear finding … that the claim involves substantial disputes of facts (which, in that instance, precluded any furtherance of the application). It is respectfully submitted that it is not now for this Court to displace, interfere with or go behind that extant ruling. Moreover, any maintenance or continuation of the proceedings within the Part 8 framework would be a direct contravention of the substance of the ruling of Deputy Master Marsh."
"6. I heard submissions from counsel concerning whether today's hearing should proceed as a disposal hearing. I gave an indication at the outset that I was minded to do so, unless I was satisfied that there were conflicts on the evidence that would make it impossible or improper for the hearing to proceed. What emerged from the submissions is that, and this is common ground between counsel, if the Court is able to undertake an evaluation of the evidence on a similar basis to that underCPR Part 24 , and to conclude that the evidence does not meet the Part 24 threshold, in other words the evidence is fanciful, then the Court is entitled to proceed, notwithstanding that on the face of it there are issues of fact between the parties. I heard full and, as is to be expected, careful submissions from Mr Edwards, who appeared for the Defendant, seeking to persuade me that the case should go to a trial and the Court could not safely conclude his client's evidence was fanciful. I will deal with those submissions in a moment."
"22. … As I have indicated, the notes are in each case held by a nominee for a common depository. The common depository is not of course the owner of the notes. The notes are in fact held through two electronic book entry systems operated by Euroclear and Clearstream, by ultimate owners. Those ultimate owners, the account holders, may themselves be beneficial owners or, alternatively, they may themselves hold for clients sometimes directly or sometimes through intermediaries such as banks and brokerage houses. 23. … Castle Holdco itself is not generally concerned with who is the ultimate beneficial owner. Indeed the security documents themselves contain a provision that Castle Holdco shall treat the common depository or its nominee as the absolute owner of the global security for all purposes. However, the security documentation does contain a mechanism whereby the beneficial owner can upon request become a direct creditor of Castle Holdco."
"21. Secondly, and more generally, subject toCPR Part 8.1 (6) , the Part 8 procedure is to be used where the claimant seeks the Court's decision on a question which is unlikely to involve a substantial dispute of fact. Part 8.2 provides that the Part 8 Claim Form must state 'the question which the claimant wants the court to decide; or the remedy which the claimant is seeking and the legal basis for the claim to that remedy' . It is, therefore, an express requirement of the use of the Part 8 procedure that the question for the Court is one that is unlikely to involve a substantial dispute of fact and it is, it seems to me, to be implied in the rules that the question should be framed with some degree of precision and/or be capable of a precise answer. 22. The experience of this Court shows that there is a real risk of the Part 8 procedure being used too liberally and inappropriately with the risks both of prejudice to one or other of the parties in the presentation of their case and of the court being asked to reach ill-formulated and ill-informed decisions. 23. In this case, MJL's Acknowledgment of Service took issue with the Court's jurisdiction on the basis that the Claim involved substantial issues of fact. That was an unsurprising stance given that Merit's pleaded case turned substantially on what it said were the consequences of or inferences to be drawn from the conduct of the parties rather than, for example, from words used. By the time of the hearing before me, MJL's position had shifted. MJL no longer maintained a jurisdictional objection as such and considered that it may be useful for the Court to reach decisions which could resolve issues between the parties. MJL recognised, however, that the Court might still have reservations about that approach. 24. I did indeed have such reservations and it remains, of course, a matter for the Court's discretion whether to grant declaratory relief at all. 25. Despite the characterisation of the question for the Court as the correct interpretation of the contract, this is not a case in which the Court is being asked to construe the written terms of the contract. On the contrary, the Court is being asked to determine the very nature of the contractual relationship between the parties, both parties accepting that there is some contractual relationship. It is highly unusual for the Court to be asked to do so, in effect, on documents only with a short hearing. My concerns were allayed to a large extent by Mr Mort QC's submission that the relevant facts were short and uncontentious and that MJL had not identified any other factual issues on which it might wish to rely. This is important: it is only in such cases that it is appropriate to issue Part 8 proceedings. 26. I remained concerned, nonetheless, about the scope of what the Court was being asked to do and I heard this Claim on the basis that I would not reach a conclusion until giving judgment as to how far I should go in terms of findings or declarations. There were a number of unsatisfactory aspects of these proceedings which did not make this task easier and serve to emphasise why the Part 8 procedure should not be over liberally deployed. [ … ] 31. Had a Part 7 procedure been adopted, then on the face of the pleadings, the parties' positions would have been fully set out and, if not, further information could have been sought. If there were no need for factual evidence, there would have been mechanisms available (in the discretion of the court) to resolve the issue of the contractual relationship between the parties promptly –– for example, by the hearing of a preliminary issue or an expedited hearing –– and on a surer footing than is offered by the Part 8 procedure in circumstances such as this. 32. All these issues seem to me to illustrate why care should be taken by the parties and the Court in the deployment of the Part 8 procedure."
"In the Companies Acts 'director' includes any person occupying the position of director, by whatever name called."
"115. … A de facto director is not formally invested with office, but if what he actually does amounts to taking all important decisions affecting the relevant company, and seeing that they are carried out, he is acting as a director of that company. It makes no difference that he is also acting as the only active de jure director of a corporate director of the company."
"In the Companies Acts 'shadow director', in relation to a company, means a person in accordance with whose directions or instructions the directors of the company are accustomed to act."
"It is clear that if the terms upon which the person receives the money are that he is bound to keep it separate, either in a bank or elsewhere, and to hand that money so kept as a separate fund to the person entitled to it, then he is a trustee of that money and must hand it over to the person who is his cestui que trust. If on the other hand he is not bound to keep the money separate, but is entitled to mix it with his own money and deal with it as he pleases, and when called upon to hand over an equivalent sum of money, then, in my opinion, he is not a trustee of the money, but merely a debtor."
"22. The starting point is the resolution of 15 April by Highbury as Noteholder removing C4 as Share Trustee. No evidence has been filed by the Claimants as to who are the Noteholders; I am told that this is for reasons of confidentiality. The Claimants say that, even if Highbury were a Noteholder (and it has produced no evidence to that effect), this would not entitle Highbury to remove C4 as Share Trustee holding the issued share capital in C1 and C2. This is because Noteholders have no power to remove and appoint the Share Trustee under clause 9 of the Share Trust Deeds (see paragraph 5 above). That is plainly correct. Without the valid appointment of Highbury as the holder of the shares in C1 and C2, the Defendants' entire house of cards collapses."
"21. … When considering the exercise of the discretion, in broad terms, the court should take into account justice to the claimant, justice to the defendant, whether the declaration would serve a useful purpose and whether there are other special reasons why or why not the court should grant the declaration. More specifically: (1) There must, in general, be a real and present dispute between the parties before the court as to the existence or extent of a legal right between them. However, the claimant does not need to have a present cause of action against the defendant. A present dispute over a right or obligation that may only arise if a future contingency occurs may well be suitable for declaratory relief and amount to a real and present dispute. (2) Each party must, in general, be affected by the court's determination of the issues concerning the legal right in question. (3) The fact that the claimant is not a party to the relevant contract in respect of which such a declaration is sought is not fatal to an application for a declaration, provided that the claimant is directly affected by the issue. In such cases, however, the court ought to proceed very cautiously when considering whether to make the declaration sought. (4) The court will be prepared to give declaratory relief in respect of a 'friendly action' or where there is an 'academic question', if all parties so wish, even on 'private law' issues. This may be particularly so if the case is a test case or the case may affect a significant number of other cases, and it is in the public interest to decide the point in issue. (5) The court must be satisfied that all sides of the argument will be fully and properly put. It must, therefore, ensure that all those affected are either before it or will have their arguments put before the court. For this reason, the court ought not to make declarations without trial. In Wallersteiner v. Moir , Buckley LJ said this: 'It has always been my experience and I believe it to be a practice of very long standing, that the court does not make declarations of right either on admissions or in default of pleading. A statement on this subject of respectable antiquity is to be found in Williams v. Powell [1894] WN 141, where Kekewich J, whose views on the practice of the Chancery Division have always been regarded with much respect, said that a declaration by the court was a judicial act, and ought not to be made on admissions of the parties or on consent, but only if the court was satisfied by evidence. If declarations ought not to be made on admissions or by consent, a fortiori they should not be made in default of defence, and a fortissimo, if I may be allowed the expression, not where the declaration is that the defendant in default of defence has acted fraudulently…' (6) In all cases, assuming that the other tests are satisfied, the court must ask: is this the most effective way of resolving the issues raised? In answering that question, the court must consider the other options of resolving the issue."
"The High Court may by order (whether interlocutory or final) grant an injunction or appoint a receiver in all cases in which it appears to the court to be just and convenient to do so."
"It does not follow that because a man has done a wrongful act an injunction will be granted against him, though he is liable to damages for the wrong. The Court of Chancery said, 'Where a man threatens and intends to do a wrongful act, we will, before it is done, grant an injunction to prevent his doing it, and we will grant it where the act has been done and is likely to be repeated'—the jurisdiction is simply preventive."
"169. The principles may be summarised in the following way: i) The invocation of this jurisdiction requires proof that, unless the court intervenes by injunction, there is a real risk that an actionable wrong will be committed (see e.g. Coflexip SA v Stolt Comex Seaway MS Ltd [1999] 2 All E.R. 593, at [7]–[10]). ii) There is no fixed or absolute standard for measuring the degree of apprehension of a wrong which must be shown in order to justify quia timet relief: see Hooper v Rogers[1975] Ch. 43 at 50. The more serious the consequences and the risk of wrongdoing, the more likely the court will be satisfied that relief is appropriate. iii) If the court decides to grant a final injunction, the width of that injunction is a matter for the court's discretion and can be tailored according to the circumstances: see Gee [2-045], citing Microsoft Corp v Plato Technology Ltd , unreported,15 July 1999 ). The court has a discretion to order mandatory steps to be taken for the purpose of avoiding the commission of any wrong and preventing any harm to the applicant, though this power will be exercised with caution: See [ Gee on Commercial Injunctions (7th ed.)] [2-046]. iv) Whether a case is an appropriate one for the grant of quia timet relief has to be considered in the light of all the relevant circumstances known at the time of the hearing of an application for an interim injunction, or at the time of trial: Proctor v Bayley(1889) 42 Ch D 390 , 398 (injunction against infringement of a patent refused when the last infringement had been four years previously and there was no intention to infringe in the future). v) The relevant factors include whether there is a threat of imminent wrongdoing, the seriousness of the damage which might be done imminently, whether the defendant is actively seeking to prevent wrongdoing, or is himself threatening to commit a wrong, and whether if damage were done, it would be rectifiable: see Gee [2-046]."
"1. … In very broad terms the Claimants say that there has been a sustained and determined assault by the principal Defendants on a group of securitisation structures in which the Claimants are the issuers of publicly traded notes."
"252. The Defendants have targeted these securitisation structures relentlessly. One or other of them have pretended to occupy the roles of directors of the Issuers, trustees for the noteholders, receivers of the underlying assets, Servicers, advisers to the Issuers, and other positions. They purported (in their assumed role of directors) to forfeit the shares held by BMFH in the Issuers and sell them to Highbury. They managed to change important company filings at Companies House and made misleading announcements to investors over the RNS. None of this is legitimate. The Defendants have never occupied any of these roles. They are, for legal purposes, strangers to the Securitisations. The reasons they have given for their actions are spurious. The corporate assault has been going on for the best past of two years, in the teeth of earlier orders of the courts and the Claimants' reasoned protests. It must now stop. I shall grant relief in respect of both claims."