“The court may give summary judgment against a … defendant on the whole of a claim or on a particular issue if – “(a) it considers that – … (ii) that defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue; and (b) there is no other compelling reason why the case or issue should be disposed of at a trial.”
“(c) it is satisfied that, if the claim went to trial, the claimant would obtain judgment for a substantial amount of money (other than costs) against the defendant from whom he is seeking an order for an interim payment…”
“33. On the first point, it is obvious that the claimant seeking the interim payment has the burden of satisfying the court that the necessary conditions have been fulfilled for it to consider exercising the power to grant an interim payment order. An interim payment order is one that is obtained in civil proceedings. Whatever conditions have to be satisfied must be to the usual standard of proof in civil proceedings unless there is an express indication in a statute or rule of court to the contrary. Here there is none. Therefore the claimant has to satisfy the court that the requisite conditions have been fulfilled to the civil standard, which is upon the balance of probabilities… … 36. That leads on to the next and more important question: of what does the claimant have to satisfy the court? To which the answer is: that if the claim went to trial, the claimant would obtain judgment for a substantial amount of money from this defendant. Considering the wording without reference to any authority, it seems to me that the first thing the judge considering the interim payment application under para (c) has to do is to put himself in the hypothetical position of being the trial judge and then pose the question: would I be satisfied (to the civil standard) on the material before me that this claimant would obtain judgment for a substantial amount of money from this defendant? … 38. The second point is what precisely is meant by the court being satisfied that, if the claim went to trial, the claimant “would obtain judgment for a substantial amount of money”? In my view this means that the court must be satisfied that if the claim were to go to trial then, on the material before the judge at the time of the application for an interim payment, the claimant would actually succeed in his claim and furthermore that, as a result, he would actually obtain a substantial amount of money. The court has to be so satisfied on a balance of probabilities. The only difference between the exercise on the application for an interim payment and the actual trial is that the judge considering the application is looking at what would happen if there were to be a trial on the material he has before him, whereas a trial judge will have heard all the evidence that has been led at the trial, then will have decided what facts have been proved and so whether the claimant has, in fact, succeeded… the Court must be satisfied (to the standard of a balance of probabilities) that the claimant would in fact succeed on his claim and that he would in fact obtain a substantial amount of money. It is not enough if the court were to be satisfied (to the standard of a balance of probabilities) that it was “likely” that the claimant would obtain judgment or that it was “likely” that he would obtain a substantial amount of money. 39. Next there is the question of what is meant by “a substantial amount of money”
“Anything else would, in my view, involve a wholly unrealistic and speculative exercise in crystal ball gazing, which would involve not only the court taking a view as to how long the matter would take to come to trial, but also as to what might or might not happen to various appeals on questions of law during the interim period. That is not to say that the existence of an appeal should be totally disregarded, but as a matter of general principle I think the focus has to be on the law as it is at the date of the application, rather than at the probable time of a hypothetical future trial of the action.”
“37. It should be recalled that, in the context of tax rules, such as those at issue in the main proceedings, which seek to prevent the economic double taxation of distributed profits, the situation of a corporate shareholder receiving foreign-sourced dividends is comparable to that of a corporate shareholder receiving nationally-sourced dividends in so far as, in each case, the profits made are, in principle, liable to be subject to a series of charges to tax… 38. That being so, articles 49 FEU and 63 FEU require a member state which has a system for preventing economic double taxation as regards dividends paid to residents by resident companies to afford equivalent treatment to dividends paid to residents by non-resident companies…”
“…no more than a standard adjustment for tax one would expect in the UK and I anticipate most jurisdictions to limit the circumstances in which revaluations of assets in advance of disposal are recognised for tax purposes.”
“The write down (and likewise the write back) are reversed from the accounting profits to establish the taxable profits. This creates corresponding differences between the book value of the asset for accounting purposes (“the carrying amount”) and for tax purposes (“the tax base”) which in principle requires deferred tax accounting as commented on in paragraph 20 of International Accounting Standard 12.”
“I can see no reason why this standard type of timing adjustment should be removed from the accounting profits for the computation of double tax credits and we have not followed this approach in our computations. The amounts HMRC are suggesting should be segregated were part of the accounting profits distributed in a given dividend and would have properly been taken into account in establishing the rate of underlying tax paid under the UK system at the time with respect to that dividend.”
“The taxable amount is the taxable profit less losses available for loss relief from prior years or by carry back from later years. Taxable profit is defined as income less deductible expenses and allowances. Generally, no distinction is made between trading income and capital gains.”
“9. The Dutch corporate income tax system contained a limited number of exemptions, most notably (and of most relevance to the Dutch IHG companies) the participation exemption system for qualifying share investments in subsidiaries. In the case of a qualifying share investment (which was the case with the Dutch IHG subsidiaries) dividends and capital gains/losses from domestic and foreign participations are exempt from taxation. Basically this meant that all results (positive and negative) coming from qualifying investments are excluded from the taxable amount. This was a full exemption and also applies to certain operational expenses that specifically relate to the activity of having qualifying share investments in subsidiaries. 10. One important exception is the liquidation loss incurred when liquidating a subsidiary. If certain provisions were met, a liquidation loss was tax deductible (at the normal prevailing Dutch tax rates). 11. Related to the participation exemption is the valuation method of subsidiaries on the balance sheet. For Dutch tax purposes subsidiaries qualifying for the participation exemption are valued at cost price. This means that annual revaluations are excluded from the fiscal profit/loss as any movements in the value of a subsidiary will be taken into account upon the sale of that subsidiary (the sale of a subsidiary is the assumed realisation moment by default and not liquidation). Any result would then be exempt from taxation due to the participation exemption.” 46. Later in his first statement, Mr Brands says that all the adjustments now in issue were for interests in subsidiaries, and comments: “Revaluation results – positive and negative – are eliminated (exempt) for Dutch tax purposes and therefore impact the effective tax rate in a positive or negative way.” 47. I can now return to the Revenue’s argument outlined above. As the law now stands, the argument is in my judgment most unlikely to succeed at trial. On the basis of Mr Brands’ evidence in its present form, it seems reasonably clear to me that the relevant adjustments formed part of Six Continents’ accounting profits and as such fell within the basic charge to Dutch corporation tax on Six Continents’ worldwide income. The adjustments were then excluded from the taxable amount, with the result that the tax base was correspondingly narrowed and the effective rate of tax was reduced. There appears to be no doubt about the exclusion, although it is unclear to me whether it follows from application of a general principle of Dutch tax law, or rests on the narrower basis that recognition of the adjustments for tax purposes would be incompatible with the underlying participation exemption for the shareholdings of Six Continents in the subsidiaries which paid the Dividends. 48. I find confirmation that this is the right way to analyse the position in Mr Brands’ comment, quoted above, that the effect of eliminating revaluation results is to “impact the effective tax rate in a positive or negative way”
“Second, exemption from tax of dividends paid by a resident company and application to dividends paid by a non-resident company of an imputation method which… takes account of the effective level of taxation of the profits in the state of origin also cease to be equivalent if the profits of the resident company which pays dividends are subject in the member state of residence to an effective level of taxation lower than the nominal rate of tax which is applicable there.”
“27. From the perspective of the current HMRC questions, the distribution out of share premium does not relate to income liable to corporate income tax, as the contribution and the distribution are both considered non-deductible/taxable for corporate income tax purposes. 28. From a Dutch corporate income tax perspective a dividend paid out of share premium is considered not relevant for the purposes of computing Dutch taxes on profits as the dividend is considered a non taxable/deductible equity movement. Considering the fact that the dividend is not related to any income gained, there is no link with corporate income tax whatsoever.”