‘Tipping off: regulated sector A person commits an offence if— (a) the person discloses that an investigation into allegations that an offence under this Part has been committed is being contemplated or is being carried out; (b) the disclosure is likely to prejudice that investigation; and (c) the information on which the disclosure is based came to the person in the course of a business in the regulated sector.’ (a) the person discloses that an investigation into allegations that an offence under this Part has been committed is being contemplated or is being carried out; (b) the disclosure is likely to prejudice that investigation; and (c) the information on which the disclosure is based came to the person in the course of a business in the regulated sector.’
‘A person does not commit an offence under section 333A(3) if the person does not know or suspect that the disclosure is likely to have the effect mentioned in section 333A(3)(b).’
‘The offence of forgery A person is guilty of forgery if he makes a false instrument, with the intention that he or another shall use it to induce somebody to accept it as genuine, and by reason of so accepting it to do or not to do some act to his own or any other person’s prejudice.’
‘WILLIAM JOHN GREGORY OSMOND, between the 7th day of June 2018 and the 7th day of November 2018, having received information in the course of a business in the regulated sector, namely that the Serious Fraud Office was investigating allegations of money laundering under Part 7 of theProceeds of Crime Act 2002 , disclose that information (and particulars relating to it” to James Redding Ramsay as the said disclosure was likely to prejudice the investigation.’
‘WILLIAM JOHN GREGORY OSMOND, between the 6th day of June 2018 and the 12th day of October 2018, made an instrument, namely a copy letter of engagement from Osmond and Osmond Ltd (a solicitors firm) to Barrow Management Ltd (its client) which was false in that it purported to be a copy of a letter made on a date,24 October 2013 , on which the letter was not made, with the intention that he should use it to induce Jon Mack, an investigator employed by the Serious Fraud Office, to accept it as genuine, and by reason of so accepting it, to do some act, or not to do some act, to his own or any other person’s prejudice.’
‘4. The first Issue on which I heard submissions on Friday 3rd November is whether, in this case, a “disclosure” for the purposes of s.333A has taken place given the fact that the broader SFO investigation into ENRC was well known and was well known at the relevant time by Mr Ramsay. It is common ground that Mr Ramsay was not aware of the investigation into [Hays Mews] until D told him about it. In my view there is no sensible basis on which it can be argued that a person cannot commit the offence of “tipping off” simply because the broader investigation is already known to the relevant parties. Such a position would frustrate the whole purpose of the relevant provisions which are to ensure that investigations are not impeded by persons of interest becoming aware of them, including, where the broader investigation is known, any investigation into a particular transaction which is hitherto unknown to them. In this case the investigation of the [Hays Mews] transaction was unknown to [Mr Ramsay] and, on [the] prosecution case, it is that investigation with which count 1 is concerned. 5. The second issue relates to whether the evidence as served demonstrates that the information on which the disclosure was based came to D in the course of a business in the regulated sector. In my view, on the evidence served, the only possible answer to this question is “yes”. The Act and in particular para n of schedule 9 makes it clear that businesses in the regulated sector will, for these purposes, include a firm or sole practitioner providing legal services in relation to financial or real property transaction. D was approached and became subject to the relevant requests by reason of the fact that in relation to the [Hays Mews] transaction he acted in his capacity as a solicitor for Mr Ramsay, and indeed for Barrow Management, a relationship which, as it happens as far as Mr Ramsay is concerned, continued throughout the period charged in the indictment. Even if it had not persisted, the fact that D was made the subject of the section 2 Notice because he had provided legal services in relation to the purchase of HM is plainly sufficient to bring D within the scope of 333A. 6. Finally, I heard submissions from Mr Fenhalls that there is no evidence before the Court that, in receiving the relevant document, Mr Mack was acting in performance of a duty for the purposes of Count 2. It is common ground that the SFO and those acting for the SFO have a power to investigate a suspected offence but not a duty to do so. However, in my view there is no basis on which ‘duty’ in this context should be understood to imply a statutory duty. Plainly Mr Mack in his role as investigative lawyer for the SFO was acting under a duty to his employer to carry out that role and no argument has been advanced before me to the effect that a duty owed to an employer would not suffice for the purpose of the offence of forgery and section 1.’
‘“Disclosed” Disclosed to [Mr Ramsay] means told [Mr Ramsay] something he did not know. “Likely to prejudice that investigation” The word “prejudice” in the context of the section 333A(3)(b) offence of “tipping off” has its ordinary meaning, namely harm or disadvantage to a state of affairs. It follows that the words “likely to prejudice that investigation” mean likely to harm or cause disadvantage [to] the investigation. “Business in the regulated sector” “Business in the regulated sector” for the purposes of section 333A includes a legal firm providing legal services in relation to financial or property transactions.’
‘The word “prejudice” in the context of the offence of forgery has a particular meaning. The words “to do or not to do some act to the SFO’s prejudice” mean “to do or not to do some act in connection with Mr Mack’s performance of his duty to his employer the SFO”.’
‘25. As for the SFO, I found that, acting by Mr Alderman and/or Mr Thompson and/or Mr Gould, it was in serious breach of its own duties in relation to 15 out of the 30 [Disputed Contacts], which included engaging with and taking information from Mr Gerrard which was plainly unauthorised and against his client’s interests. ... They have been referred to in submissions for the Phase 1A Trial as “the Induced DCs”. I shall refer to them as “IDCs”. On the facts, I found that in relation to the IDCs (and subject to proof of causation and loss) the tort of inducement to breach of contract on the part of Mr Gerrard had been established. Some but not all of the elements of misfeasance in public office were also established, but not sufficient to make out the tort itself.’
‘868 (4) ... from the SFO’s own perspective, this was a case of bad faith opportunism rather than conspiring with Mr Gerrard to enable him to procure increased fees. This is not, in my view, a classic case of abuse of power; while the SFO was a willing audience for Mr Gerrard and encouraged him in terms of private meetings, he was not pressurised or threatened in any way by the SFO using its position as a prosecuting authority.’
‘20. It is not necessary for present purposes to look further than the recent decision in R v BKR[2023] EWCA Crim 903 ;[2024] 1 WLR 1327 (at [34] to [50]) for an examination of the authorities and identification of the relevant legal principles, which are non-controversial. 21. In summary, the power to stay criminal proceedings as an abuse of process is an important though exceptional remedy to be exercised with care and restraint. A stay of proceedings is the exception, not the rule; it is a measure of last resort. 22. There are two species (or limbs) of abuse justifying a stay, each of which is separate and distinct. The first is when a fair trial is not possible. The second is where it offends the court’s sense of justice and propriety, or public confidence in the criminal justice system would be undermined, for the defendant to be tried in the particular circumstances of the case. The abuse must amount to an affront to the public conscience. 23. Within the second category fall cases where the police or prosecuting authorities have engaged in misconduct. Category 2 abuse is by its nature very rarely found – such cases will be “very exceptional”. As it was put in R v BKR at [34], the second limb does not arise “unless the defendant, charged with a criminal offence, will receive a fair trial…something out of the ordinary must have occurred before a criminal court may refuse to try a defendant charged with a criminal offence when that trial will be fair”. 24. There is a two-stage approach when considering limb 2 abuse. First, it must be determined whether and in what respect the prosecutorial authorities have been guilty of misconduct, such as very serious examples of malpractice and unlawfulness (as opposed to state incompetence or negligence). Secondly, it must be determined whether such misconduct justifies a stay on the ground of abuse of process. This requires an evaluation on the particular facts and circumstances of each case, weighing in the balance the public interest in ensuring that those charged with crimes should be tried against the competing public interest in maintaining confidence in the criminal justice system. 25. Unfairness to the defendant is not required; rather the focus should be on whether the court’s sense of justice and propriety is offended or public confidence in the criminal justice system would be undermined. Equally, a stay should not be imposed for the purpose of punishing or disciplining prosecutorial misconduct. The focus must be on whether a stay is appropriate in order to safeguard the integrity of the criminal justice system.’